Quote:
Originally posted by cbfoulds
OK, I'm willing to be convinced: is there any authority for the proposition that, in the circumstances we are discussing here, it makes a difference if he "steps" [one foot at a time], or "jumps" [both feet off the ground simultaneously]?
|
FED 6-1-3 -- the reference to the jump turn is the same as "turning on the pivot foot" to throw to a base. Also, "he may lift his pivot foot in a STEP backward." Also, "AFTER the pitcher has placed his pivot foot on the ground, he THEN has the right to throw or feint ... the same as any other infielder." (emphasis added)
Combine that with the "feint requires a step but does not require arm motion" language from some case play, and the fact that the non-pivot foot will move in a step toward the base, I think it's clear that the jump turn is a move toward a base no matter where the pivot foot lands.
Finallly, NCAA 9-1e AR "To 'step off' the pitcher's rubber, the pitcher must 1) step back off the rubber and 2) disengage the pivot foot before moving the free foot."
That said, once upon a time, I was taught as you were -- if the pivot foot is behnd the rubber, it's a disengagment; if the pivot foot end up in front of the rubber, it's not. I didn't know enough to ask for support for that position at the time; I've not seen any since.
Question: If (before this discussion, or still if you haven't changed your mind), F1 makes this jump turn and the pivot foot lands behind the runner and F1 throws the ball out of play, how many bases are you going to award?
[Edited by bob jenkins on Mar 21st, 2005 at 08:55 AM]