The verbage makes sense here and I would have got this wrong on a test question, until now. My question is if an A player who is 4 stinking feet beyond the LOS and never hit a team B player, are you going to rag him for being illegally downfield? It's not like he really gained any kind of advantage especially if he's supposed to be behind the LOS blocking for his QB. If he touches a pass or some how draws coverage I agree it should (and has) to be flagged. So with that as a backdrop I ask are we going to be that strict if he really hasn't gained an advantage?
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