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Old Mon Jun 11, 2001, 02:42pm
PeteBooth PeteBooth is offline
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Originally posted by Gre144
If the batter interferes with the catchers throw to third base is the batter automatically out or do we call R3 out? Assume that if there was not interference, R3 could have been thrown out. Also, R3 was not stealing to home but rather he was taking a big lead off of third.

If B1 interferes with F2, intent is not required. There are no woulda coulda shoulda's. if B1 interferes, he / she interferes. The batter is always out and runners return to their TOP bases.
EXCEPTION: If a runner on third is advancing towards home plate and there are less than 2 outs, the runner is out. If there are 2 outs, the batter is out.

So in your play, we have interference on the part of B1 - the batter is out and r3 is returned to second.

Assume that if there was not interference, R3 could have been thrown out.

As mentioned, no assumption comes into play here. If B1 interfered, B1 interfered. Call it and enforce.

Also, R3 was not stealing to home but rather he was taking a big lead off of third.

The question to be asked is: Is r3 advancing towards home. If r3 has a big lead, I would make the assumption that r3 was advancing towards home and in this case r3 could be called out if B1 interfered with F2 and there were less than 2 outs.

Reference FED rule 7-4-5

Pete Booth
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