[QUOTE]
Originally posted by mikebran
Wow... That is fantastic. I asked, and there it is. Thanks so much... and I hope that (whoever) noticed this is not a time play. I'm disappointed I didn't find this myself. The forum works!
SO PER MY ORIGINAL PLAY.. you would score one run on this? That is, of course logical, but if you score ONE run, what is the reason that you don't also score R2... (and even R1)?
Quote:
Originally posted by Delaware Blue
Under Rule 7.04(b), the run should score even if the BR is declared out before R3 touches the plate. Since the BR "forced" R3 to advance, his run should score.
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You are only forced one base (to make room for the BR at first) - after that all bets are off.
[Edited by Rich Ives on Feb 15th, 2005 at 09:33 AM]