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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 01:09pm
Dan_ref Dan_ref is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by RUBIERA
Hi everyone
Talking about court status, someone in this forum give this example maybe 3 or 4 days ago. (I can't find it)

A1 has the ball and A1 is running and know he is going to go OOB so he pass the ball to A2, A1 came back to the court and A2 pass the ball back.

While A1 is coming back into the court he has his right foot inside the court and his left foot is still in the air when he get the pass.

In the post that I saw was said that A1 was legally in the court and he was not OOB when he got the ball.

I been reading my NFHS referee refreshment test (so I can remember more cases and apply to the game) and I found this question....>>>>
B1 has one foot touching the boundary line. B1 lifts the foot in the air and prior to placing it back to the playing court A1 charges B1. Official charges A1 with a player control foul. Is the official correct?? the answer is (NO) the official is not correct.

In this case the official is not correct because B1 have not establish a legal court status. So looking at the first example A1 has not establish a legal court status so there for he is still OOB when he receive the ball.

Comment please.
Reyes
LGP = both feet on the court facing the opponent.

Not 1 foot, 2 feet. B1 did not, by rule, establish LGP.

BTW, If I was "the official"'s partner he & I would have a talk at halftime.
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