Yes, there must be a proper throw to retire the runner, but there are even finer lines to draw ...
As you describe the play, the runner would only be out of the lane while his left foot is on the ground. So, if the ball hits the runner when his left foot is not in contact, you do not have a running lane violation!
There is a still finer line: the runner is permitted to cross into fair territory to touch the base. This is usually acceptable about 2 steps (or just under ten feet) prior to the base. The base is in fair territory, how can a runner touch it if you require him to run in foul?
Originally the bases were half in fair, half in foul territory. That is when the rule was created. The configuration of the bases changed but the wording of the rule remained constant. The application of the rule changed, but try to find documentation on that.
In your case the throw was obviously errant, so you cannot even consider the interference call.
Brent
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