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Old Thu May 31, 2001, 11:43pm
Gre144 Gre144 is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2001
Posts: 252
Quote:
Originally posted by Blaine Gallant
Quote:
Originally posted by Gre144
If the ball hits the batter and a strike is called because he swings at it or it crosses the strike zone, is the ball always dead? What if you have strike 3 on the batter, but the ball hits him and the catcher doesn't catch the ball? If you kill it,then how can the batter-runner attempt to run to first base which he is allowed to do on a dropped thrid strike with first base unoccupied and less then 2 outs?
This is precisely WHY we kill it. On the play, batter swings, misses and the ball deflects off his knee, to the backstop. R3 scores.

Now, how do we justify R3 scoring on a play that the catcher had no chance to field?

Don't think too much about the effect on the offense. It is the OFFENSIVE player who missed the pitch and got hit! Simple play, dead ball. Remember on ANY PITCH THAT HITS THE BATTER, THE BALL IS DEAD (OBR).

Blaine
So does the batter get first base or is he automatically out on a dropped third strike that hits him as he swings?According to Fed 8-1-1-d-E the hitting of the batter is disregarded if he is hit by the pitch but swings at it for strike three. The ball is immediately dead. However, this rule does not say whether the batter is out or not on a called third strike that hits him and the catcher drops the ball. If you call the ball dead immediately as the rule book states, then how does the batter get the opportunity to run to unoccupied first base?

In short, my question is the following:Is strike three called on the batter and the batter gets a chance to run to third?; or is the batter automatically out? (Assume that the ball hits him as he swings and the catcher drops the ball. First base is unoccupied.)

[Edited by Gre144 on May 31st, 2001 at 11:58 PM]
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