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Originally posted by Lotto
assignmentmaker has a point here. The word "cause" is used in different ways in different parts of the rulebook and it's led to common misconceptions about both. I'll quote from the NCAA rulebook:
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Rule 9
Section 3. Ball Out of Bounds
Art. 1. A player shall not cause the ball to go out of bounds.
Section 12. Ball in Back Court
Art. 1. A player shall not be the first to touch the ball in his or her back court when the ball came from the front court while the playerÂ’s team was in team control and the player or a teammate caused the ball to go into the back court.
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A player standing out of bounds who touches a ball is considered to have caused the ball to go out of bounds. A player standing in the backcourt who touches a ball with frontcourt status is not considered to have caused the ball to go into the backcourt. Maybe this is why we keep getting asked when A1, who is inbounds, throws the ball to B1, who is standing out of bounds for some reason, if B gets the ball because A1 "caused" the ball to go out of bounds. (I'm not suggesting that it does, rather, I'm suggesting that the different uses of the word "caused" is "causing" confusion.)
[Edited by Lotto on Jan 25th, 2005 at 05:46 AM]
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This argument makes the most sense to me, based on the rules that exist. I'm going with this one. Like Rainmaker, I'm not sure I could explain the reasons for calling it a violation, even though I understand why some people think it would be a violation. To me, what Lotto said makes the most sense. I have to apologize to assignmentmaker, the original poster, as I trivialized his scenario which turned out to be a very complex one.
If a case should be created in the books that covers this scenario and it calls it a violation, then I'll change my call. Until then, the only fair justification in my own mind is no violation.