[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by Damian
B-JV last night. A1 is going in for a layup. While in the act if shooting, but before the release, B1 fouls A1. It it not intentional, but enough contact to prevent the shot from being completed. At the last moment, A1 passes to A2 as my whistle goes off.

I called foul while shooting even though A1 passed after the foul. In my opinion, it looked like he was shooting and would have finished the shot had he not been fouled. Part of my reasoning was that if he had been fould sufficiently to prevent the release of the ball, he still would have been considered in the act of shooting.


The easy call would have been to spot it on the baseline.

I was a majority of one on the call and the coach called a timeout to ask me how I arrived at my opinion.

I would like to hear what y'all think of this.

Thanks,
DD

Damian:

This play is a good example of seeing the whole play. You were correct in sounding your whistle when the foul occurred, and your were correct is stating that had B1’s contact prevented A1 from releasing the ball, A1 has to be considered to have been fouled in the act of shooting. But B1’s contact did not keep A1 from releasing the ball for either a shot or pass. Therefore, you have to wait to see the whole play to determine whether B1’s foul was a common foul or a foul against a player in the act of shooting.

MTD, Sr.