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Originally posted by Mark Padgett
I disagree totally. No violation occurred when the ball hit the ref if the ref was OOB. In the backcourt situation, the violation occurs not when the ball hits the ref (yes, I know that's not the point of the quote) but because when it hits the ref the ball gains backcourt status and then is touched by A1.
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You're absolutely correct. That's not the point of the quote. The point was that if the ball hits the official, the ball has FC status.
Quote:
Hitting the ref while the ref is OOB means the ball just retains OOB status. It's the same theory if the ball is passed from inbounds and hits a ref OOB. The ball is then ruled OOB because it gained OOB status when it hit the ref.
To me, the player hitting the OOB ref with the ball is no different that if he bounced it OOB before the inbound pass.
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That sure sounds all well and good but how about quoting a rule to back it up, instead of just offering another opinion. The ball wasn't dribbled, it wasn't passed to a teammate and it wasn't passed inbounds. Therefore, per 7-6-1, 7-5-7, and 9-2-2, it's violation.
Now, I'm not necessarily advocating calling it, and it may violate what probably should happen but by the rules quoted, it's a violation.