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Old Sat Jan 01, 2005, 09:08pm
Lotto Lotto is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
Quote:
Originally posted by Lotto
Quote:
Originally posted by jr
a1 and b1 (players) commit a double foul. can a1's part of a double foul be flagrant while b1's part be common?
Yes.

Hey Lotto, Care to reconsider that answer?

...

I'm just nitpicking the terminology here because Lotto obviously knows this since he correctly told you what happens when a double personal foul is called and A1 did something that was flagrant:
Terminologically speaking, you're right. A double foul is a single entity, not two separate fouls that can be common or flagrant.
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