Quote:
Originally posted by Hotlink501
Would not a false double foul be a common foul on both teams when at least one component is missing of a double foul. I have not read where an intentional foul is a false double foul. By definition alone, dead ball automatically makes it an intentional foul and not a false double foul, therefor the person foulded would have to shoot the freethrows. Show me what I'm reading wrong into this situation.
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What rulebook are you reading? There's no definition in any rule book that I know of stating that the dead ball makes it an intentional foul. The second foul doesn't have to be any specified or particular kind, and it doesn't have to occur during a dead ball either. The second foul can be any type of personal or technical foul, and that foul just has to occur sometime
before the clock starts after the first foul was called to make it part of a "false double" foul. AAMF, the first foul doesn't have to be a certain type either. It could be personal or technical too, and could also be any of the different types of personal and technical fouls also.