[Hotlink501]

Would not a false double foul be a common foul on both teams when at least one component is missing of a double foul. I have not read where an intentional foul is a false double foul. By definition alone, dead ball automatically makes it an intentional foul and not a false double foul, therefor the person foulded would have to shoot the freethrows. Show me what I'm reading wrong into this situation.