[Hotlink501]

maybe I am reading this wrong, but it would not be a false double foul, because it is already a dead ball call, intentional at least, if not flagrant, (my opinion, 5th foul or not, he's gone). B1 was the one who was fouled by the intentional foul, he would be the one going to the line for two shots, after the one-one on the other end was complete. right???