Okay, Okay, I know that we are looking at a literal definition from the rule book, and you guys are correct in your calling it a non-kick. But lets weigh the advantage/disadvantage of the play. This was an obvious foot strike attempt and just because he gets lucky and happens to hit above the knee, I am not going to let him get away with a kick here. The key is if you judge that he INTENTIONALLY is kicking at the ball to stop a pass. I probably am the only one to see it this way, but there are some black and white definitions from the book that jsut don't serve the purpose in certain situations.
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