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Old Sat Dec 11, 2004, 09:51pm
blue3 blue3 is offline
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Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 7
Why wouldn't the umpire apply the same rule as if the pitch had gone out of play, which in actuality it did? With first base occupied, one out and two strikes on the batter, if the pitcher throws a mean slider that the batter swings at and misses for strike three and the pitch then short hops the catcher hitting him on a shin guard and the ball then rolls into the dugout, the ball would be dead, the batter would be out and any runners on base would move up one.

If it were two outs, everyone would get a base.

Yes, No?
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