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				Originally posted by zebraman  
A1 scores.  B1 has a "run-the-endline" throw-in.  B2 catches the ball and is fouled immediately.  The ensuing throw-in is on the baseline.  Our state interpreter specifically told us that team B still has endline-run privileges. 
			
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 Your state interpreter is wrong.  
The rule is clear in that it says the common foul or violation by the opponent MUST be before the throw-in ends.
How much time can pass before the foul is no longer considered "immediately?"  Without some definitve time frame, the dribbler could cribble for 9 seconds, get fouled, and still be able to run the end line.
His interp makes no sense.