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What if he got part of the hand
BBJ,
Suppose the player got part of the hand that was in contact with the ball? You'd call a foul? Why? Using your same logic its not a foul because by rule the hand is part of the ball. Are you going to disregard the rule because of the violent nature of the block? If so, why not call the foul when he got all ball?
It seems to me that if you call a foul when he got part of the hand and I call the foul even if he did not make contact with the hand, in both cases we are calling a foul contrary to the strict letter of the law.
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