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Old Thu Mar 29, 2001, 04:13pm
DDonnelly19 DDonnelly19 is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Buster Light
And maybe I too am missing the point.

Bfair is saying that (correct me if I am wrong):

1- FED requires the umpire to call out a runner for base-running infractions without appeal.
2- Not reaching first base can be considered a base-running infraction.

The problem as I see it is all in how you define the term "FORCE" in 9-1-1d below:

FED 9-1-1d: when a third out is declared during a play in which an umpire observed a base-running infraction resulting in a force-out (this out takes precedence if enforcement of it would negate a score);

Lets put it another way.... You have this situation as described in a FED game. You don't like the damn rule but the batter never even vacated the batter's box. Defensive coach comes screaming out of the dugout after you. Everyone in the park knows the batter never came within 80 feet of fist base. He wants you to call that out. You say NO. He recites 9-1-1d.

WHAT DO YOU SAY?

And don't tell me you just walk off the field. You have to justify your inaction.

None of us want to call that out but give me some real ammo not just words.

Buster

Well, I say, "The batter is not forced to first base; therefore, the rule does not apply."

Besides, how could this be considered a "base-running infraction?" If that's the case, consider this play:

R2, R3, 2 outs. Ground ball to F6, who decides to throw to 3B to put out R2. R3 scores before R2 is tagged, but the tag comes before B1 reaches 1B.

Do we negate the run because of B1's supposed "infraction?"

Dennis