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Old Thu Mar 29, 2001, 12:34pm
Bfair Bfair is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2000
Posts: 813
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Carl Childress
Quote:
Lacking an official ruling from Hopkins, I do not believe a FED umpire shouuld apply that ruling in his games since PBUC interpretations are valid only for OBR contests.
In the past I understood you to promote the concept that if one set of rules makes a ruling, and the other set has not ruled (but is still in question), then the ruling from the first set of rules which made a ruling should be used until addressed by the other set of rules.

Was I wrong in this understanding of analogy? (I suspect I can locate support in past posts--perhaps not). If not, does this no longer apply? Does this analogy apply only where one wants it to apply---and not where they don't? Is it used only at certain times to support one's position?

Steve
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