You keep not answering the question...
Why, in your opinion, when two officials disagree on what they saw, should we immediatly and uniformly default to the one of those two that threw a flag, and the one that saw the same action, but NOT see a foul or throw a flag, must defer to the judgement of the other... in other words, why do we assume, in such cases, that the one throwing a flag was RIGHT in his judgement call, and completely dismiss the other official's judgement call (for certainly it was judgement that caused him to NOT throw a flag)?
I've posted my opinion on why we do this, but you've not, and I'm curious to hear if your reasoning mirrors mine or supplements it.
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