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Well, I read the question on the test again and it makes no mention of the ball passing through the strike zone, but only that it touches the ground. Also, after looking over 2.00 BALL again the wording seems somewhat vague:
2.00 BALL -- If the pitch touches the ground and bounces through the strike zone it is a "ball." If such a pitch touches the batter, he shall be awarded first base.
What is meant by "such a pitch" -- a ball that bounces through the zone or just a pitch that bounces? In the former case, the definition would tend to be interpreted that only pitches that bounce through the zone and strike a batter would not require the batter to attempt to avoid the pitch -- seems unlikely that the rulesmakers intended THAT scenario to occur. Why would we be required to determine whether a bouncing pitch passes through the strike zone, which would determine if the batter would be required to avoid being hit by the pitch? Once that pitch hits the ground, there is no more "strike zone."
However, if the definition is clarifying that a pitch that simply bounces and touches a batter would not prevent a batter from being awarded a base, then the requirements on the batter outlined in 6.08(b) should still apply. Granted, we'd give the benefit of the doubt to the batter in such situations, but the question is merely wanting the by-the-book ruling. If the batter does not need to avoid the pitch on a 40-footer rolling towards him, why should he on a 30-mph lollipop going right for his backside?
Dennis
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