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Old Tue Mar 20, 2001, 03:56pm
walter walter is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2000
Posts: 306
We may end up agreeing to disagree. If a foul occurs so near the expiration of time that the timer can't get the clock stopped before time expires you have to judge where the ball was at the time the shot clock expired. In this case, the foul occurs at 1 second on the shot clock. If the shot clock operator stops the clock prior to expiration great. However, if not, you still have to decide when the shot clock try ended. Take the foul out of the equation for a minute. If a player begins his habitual throwing motion at 1 second on the shot clock, in order for it to be a valid shot clock try the ball has to be released before the shot clock horn rings and then the ball must hit the rim flange or go in. This is the same principal. I understand what you are saying about the foul occurring at 1 second. In the post it clearly states that the time is at 0:00 and horn (and I'm guessing this is the shot clock horn) has rung and the ball is still in his hand. Therefore, yes he's in the act, but no he has not completed a shot clock try. Two shots. I intend to call my supervisor tonight and run it by him and I'll post later.
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