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I asked a question in the previous thread on this topic but it is at the bottom of page three and the discussion is well into page four and I am afraid it will be lost, so I am posting here as a new thread. The specific question was for cowboyfan1, but I am interested in how any Referee who says they would never overrule another official would handle a situation where a call was made that had no enforcement or signal, and the calling official would not back down.
Here is the pertinent part of cowbyfan1's post:
I also worked as a White hat in a varisty game last year. The head coach of team A kept yelling his receivers were being bumped more than 5 yards down field. Next play my LJ throws a flag. I asked him what he had and he told me the defender bumped the receiver more than 5 yards down field. I preceeded to tell him that is an NFL rule, not High school. I then asked him if the defender held the reciever. He said no. I asked him if when the bump happened was the pas in the air. He said no. I then asked him if the bump kept the reciever from getting downfield at all. He said no. I then asked him then you think I should wave off the flag and he said yes. Again I did not overrule him tho I knew he was wrong.
Here is my question for him:
If I understand you correctly, if he had said "No, you should not wave off the flag.", you would not have waved it off. How many yards would the umpire have marked off? What signal would you have given? What would your explanation to the offensive coach have been if he had questioned the call?
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