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Hopefully that situation would never happen, but I can't imagine bringing the ball all the way back to where the first backward pass occurred and marching it off from there.
If you asked me that question point blank, I would've said that you'd mark it off from where the foul took place. My rationing is because the offense is still in possession of the ball......not to totally go against what we know in the rule books, but would you really bring it all the way back to where the first backward pass...?
Thoughts...?
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