[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by nine01c

Here's one a friend of mine had in a game:

R1 and R3, 1 out. Ball is hit to F1 on a short-hop who runs towards R3 to hold him on 3B. R1 advances to and touches 2B. F1 then turns and fires to F3. Ball gets away and is retrieved by backup fielder. BR is safe.BU has called BR SAFE, then realizes there are 2 runners in his view. One is R1 on base. The other,BR who has over-run 1B and is standing a ways up the line beyond 1B in foul territory. In the confusion, R1 takes off towards 2B and is tagged OUT. R3 advances and scores.

Defensive coach argues there should be 3 outs and no run should score. Besides wondering how the heck this happened, how would you rule this play?

Let's stick to the rules:

Since the batter became a runner R1 is FORCED to the next base, meaning 1st base is no longer His/hers.

Now R1 for some strange reason after touching second retreating back towards first base. In that case, The Force is now reinstated.

Here's the applicable rule reference.


OBR 7.08
Any runner is out when_
(e) He fails to reach the next base before a fielder tags him or the base, after he has been forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner. However, if a following runner is put out on a force play, the force is removed and the runner must be tagged to be put out. The force is removed as soon as the runner touches the base to which he is forced to advance, and if he overslides or overruns the base, the runner must be tagged to be put out. However, if the forced runner, after touching the next base, retreats for any reason towards the base he had last occupied, the force play is reinstated, and he can again be put out if the defense tags the base to which he is forced;

Therefore, the ruling on this play is:

2 Outs, BR at first base. R3 scores. The BR being up the line in Foul Territory has NOT passed R1, hence the ruling for a passed runner is not applicable.

Pete Booth