Quote:
Originally posted by Gee
One reason it is not called a force at first is the fact that when a runner passes any base including home he has removed the force (Where applicable). So take the classic play with an R3 and an R1, two outs.
Batter singles, R3 scores, R1 fails to touch second in passing, stops immediately and tries to scramble back but is tagged out before he gets back.
Ruling: Score the run, R1 removed the FORCE and was put out for an off base out.
Take a similar situation at first with an R3 and an R1 with two outs. Batter singles, R3 scores, B/R fails to touch first in running THROUGH the base, he stops immediately after passing and is tagged out before he returns. B/R was tagged out before touching first for the third out.
Ruling: Don't score the run. Couldn't remove the force as there is no force there. If the B/R made the turn at first and was tagged out, the run would score. There is a reason for everything. G.
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Gee,
The scoring or not scoring the run is same whether we consider B/R to be forced at first or not. In your second scenario, even if a putative force on B/R is removed when he passes first base, the run isn't scored unless he touches the base safely. Rule 4.09 (a) (1) says so.
There may indeed be a reason to conclude that B/R isn't forced at first, but this isn't it.
By the way, can you point me to an elucidation of the principle that passing a base removes the force? I'd like to understand what happens in your first scenario if R1 continues to third and is called out on appeal.
Dave