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I posted this back on 6/15/04 about a play where with bases
loaded in a tie game, 1 out, bottom of 7, the home team pinch runs for R1. The defense notices that Bubba the pinch runner had pinch hit earlier in the game and withdrew so was an illegal substitute. They waited...hoping to turn
a double play knowing they had a sure out in their back
pocket. The visiting pitcher plunks the batter on 1-1, the home
team celebrates what appears to be victory. Now the defensive
coach points out illegal Bubba. The blues
properly call him out, eject him to the dugout only,
return R3 & R2 to their original bases and send batter
runner to first...now 2 outs. Correct I think per 3.1.1
but now several weeks later I'm hearing rumblings that
this appeal was too late. That the batter at home was the
"NEXT" batter and after 1 pitch was thrown to him it is too
late. Carl alludes to this in 473 in the 2004 BRD and says
we rule just like 468 which means the blues were right.
Tell me these "rumblings" are wrong and are reading too much
into 3.1.1. I know all fault goes to the blues for ever letting Bubba get out to first base as a pinch runner to begin with...but I can't believe this "next" batter crap.
Help!!
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