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Both of you are focusing on the wrong player.
If the fielder does not have the ball, the fielder may not impede the runner. Simple as that.
The runner is not obligated to take the part of the base the defense "gives" (corner of bag, space between legs, whatever). If whatever the fielder is doing causes the runner to slow down, deviate from the chosen path, or get blocked from the bag while using the path the runner has chosen it is obstruction, folks.
Was the runner impeded?
If yes, did the fielder have the legal right to impede (i.e. possession of the ball or fielding a batted ball)?
If no, OBSTRUCTION!
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Tom
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