Quote:
Originally posted by David Emerling
Which specific rule would you cite to support that it is illegal for an umpire to change his call because of the reason above? I'm inclined to agree with you, philosophically, but I am more interested in the rule citation.
On a swipe tag on the base paths, where the runner is called out ... when the dust settles, if the umpire making the original call should subsequently decide to change that call (for whatever reason), would that be protestable as a misapplication of the rules by the offended manager? And, if so, which rule was misapplied?
9.02(a) "Any umpire's decision which involves judgment ... is final. No player, manager, coach or substitute shall object to any such judgment decisions."
In this case, his final decision (the second one) would be final ... if you follow me.
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David,
You are new in this forum. This issue has been a VERY heated debate over the last few days/weeks. You are correct that I have based my assertion on the wording of OBR 9.02(a). We are not talking about getting help BEFORE making a call on a swipe tag/pulled foot. We are not talking about getting help after making a call where all the information was not available to the official at the time he made the call. See the other threads on this issue for a complete list of the 5 legally changable calls.
We have had the argument about the FINAL "final" decision before and frankly it makes no sense. The word final is specific. Under the rule, once a decision is made THAT first decision is "final" - not the one after it, or the one after that. For judgement calls, the only exceptions are in OBR 9.02(c) Note and OBR 9.04(c). There is also a PBUC interpretation and a JEA authoritative opinion which each operate to allow changes in certain other specific cases. Other than these, the only decision that can be legally reversed is a rule misapplication.
To suggest you can have a "final" decision, and then a Final "final" decision and then a FINAL Final "final" decision means that all of the preceeding decisions before the LAST "final" decision were NOT "final" at all, and so in breach of the rule. It is even arguable that the "final" decision so made would STILL not be truly "final" because it too could be changed upon further deliberation. No, David, the FIRST complete decision made under the rule is the FINAL decision. If you want to continue this discussion, may I suggest we do that via email to avoid inflicting this debate on the board yet again?
Thanks and cheers,