Fri May 21, 2004, 08:25am
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Official Forum Member
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Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: North Carolina
Posts: 4,022
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Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Fronheiser
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
This play has worried the sh*t out of me all day. Granted this was a FED question, but we have mixed in some OBR in our discussion. My thoughts all day have been "how can it be logical to wipe out an out at the plate on an outstanding throw by RFielder with bases loaded because the batter was obstructed going to 1B, in either FED or OBR?" The obstruction had nothing to do with the throw to the plate. This has never come up in any games I have done, or seen, so this is all new to me, and very interesting. Prior to reading all this commentary I am sure I would have called an out at the plate (if I were the PU), and awarded 1B to batter (if I were the BU). I believe, whether right or wrong, if this were the ruling there would be no arguments from anyone.
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DG - read 7.06(a). On type A obstruction, which includes obstruction on the batter before reaching first base, the ball is dead immediately. If the play at the plate happens after the obstruction, it happens, by rule, with a dead ball.
--Rich
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I'm not sure I can deduce from the original post that the obstruction happened after the obstruction. Sounded like it was the other way around. Anyway, I think 7.06a is talking about obstruction when a play is being made on the obstructed runner, and 7.06b is talking about obstruction on a runner who is not being played on. But both say that we should advance runners to the bases they would have reached had the obstruction not occured and since the runner from 3rd was thrown out, and the obstruction had nothing to do with him then the out should stand and the batter goes to 1B, unless we think he could have made 2B, which I don't see that happening.
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