Quote:
Originally posted by scyguy
so if I am wrong, what determines interference? Intent? Correct me if I am wrong but if batter-runner is running up the line, within 45 feet of 1st and his body is inside the foul line and a throw from catcher either hits him or catcher's throw is over the head of batter-runner and this leads to hindering the 1st baseman, then we have interference, whether intentional or not. How does this differ from my original post??
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If a runner is heading towards first base, and a throw is coming from behind him, it is a lot easier for the runner to just run at the first basemen and cause interference. The interpreters saw this and came up with the rules that would allow for the runner to be in one area only, and then the fielders would be able to adjust.
Actually by defining these area it makes it easier for interference to be called. The runner is in the lane , or he is not, in those situations. Clearly, anywhere else on the field where the throw is not coming from behind the runner, it is difficult for the runner to so conviently interfer with the throw. Not that he can't, but believe me everyone will see it and even the most novice of officials would be able to make the call.
These are the rules and I believe a pretty close interpretation to the reasoning behind the call. We are there to calls them as we sees them, anything else, then we are changing the game to suit our feelings. Yes there may be times within the rules that we are allowed this previledge, but I don't believe this to be one of them.