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Old Sun Apr 25, 2004, 04:24pm
Dan_ref Dan_ref is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by CoachW
If A1 has their foot out in front, and then puts their weight on their back foot. B1 then comes up and, the way I picture it, almost straddles A1's front leg, without causing contact. Since A1 had that front leg there first, are they entitled to the space above it because of verticality? Or does that not apply, since you could also say B1 is entitled to that space since they got there without fouling.

Quote:
Originally posted by tjchamp

Would it be fair to say that verticality applies to the plane above your hips?


This topic comes up every now & then and you guys are over-thinking it, just as happens each time it's discussed. Who has the air rights above A1's leg really has nothing to do with how this play is called. Having said that B1 is perfectly entitled to straddle A1's leg in this play, as long as he does not push into A1 as he does so.

In this play I don't see how A1 can significantly displace B1 simply by trying to maintain his balance or shifting his weight back to his pivot foot. If B1 *is* displaced A1 more than likely PUSHED him, and pushed him hard - foul on A1. If A1 attempts to regain his balance and *incidentally* contacts B1 without displacing B1 from his position then we have nothing.

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