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I've read and reread (Dixie, Fed, OBA, MLB, ASA). I can't find any source that states that a foultip negates the right of the batter to run to first.
In all other cases, we treat a foultip exactly the same as a missed swinging strike - stealing runners can run, etc. Why, in just this one isolated case, are so many assuming that we should treat this one differently. Seems to me a foultip on a pitch that bounced before the foul should be treated exactly the same as a pitch that was simply missed.
Foultip, Strike Three. Batter can try to reach first, and must be tagged before he's called out.
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