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If B1 fell OOB while touching the ball, the official could have just been signalling the violation which, of course, became irrelevent with the T. If B1 was not touching the ball, you have an inadvertent whistle which, of course, becomes irrelevent with the T.
Either way, I don't think you should have a foul on A1 if neither official was going to call that foul in the first place.
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