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Old Thu Apr 01, 2004, 11:38pm
Rich Ives Rich Ives is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2000
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Re: 2-runners....1 base

Quote:
Originally posted by gumpire
Well, I researched this further after posting it and found that according to Rule 7.01:
"A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out. He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base."
But then Rule 7.03 says:
"Two runners may not occupy a base, but if, while the ball is alive, two runners are touching a base, the following runner shall be out when tagged. The preceding runner is entitled to the base."
http://www.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/mlb/of...s/runner_7.jsp
It seems these rule are in conflict.
And, DG, while I respect and appreciate your comment, why do we have an infield fly rule in we are not making some ruling in anticipation of inevitable actions?
Comments, everyone, please?
Baseball rules were written by people who know baseball, for people who know baseball. Therefore, though they seem to sometimes not make sense, the baseball community knows, for the most part, what they mean. This is one where "they" know what it means.

But to further amplify:


Add 2.00 Force play: "A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner."

So per 2.00 he lost his right to occupy the base.

Per 7.01 he is no longer entitled to it because the folowing runner gained the right.

Bottom line, he lost the right to be there and the following runner gained the right to be there. Therefore, the runner NOT entitled to be there is the one who is out.

In layman's terms, you were evicted from your apartment. The new tennant signed a lease. When he arrives, you are still there. When the sheriff shows up, you will be the one removed from the scene.

Hope this helps.
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Rich Ives
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