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Old Thu Apr 01, 2004, 11:17pm
gumpire gumpire is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2004
Posts: 93
Unhappy 2-runners....1 base

Well, I researched this further after posting it and found that according to Rule 7.01:
"A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out. He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base."
But then Rule 7.03 says:
"Two runners may not occupy a base, but if, while the ball is alive, two runners are touching a base, the following runner shall be out when tagged. The preceding runner is entitled to the base."
http://www.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/mlb/of...s/runner_7.jsp
And for those of you following FED rules, they say the same thing.
http://www.eteamz.com/baseball/rules.../index.cfm?m=1,2,3,4,5
It seems these rule are in conflict.
And, DG, while I respect and appreciate your comment, why do we have an infield fly rule in we are not making some ruling in anticipation of inevitable actions?
Comments, everyone, please?


[Edited by gumpire on Apr 1st, 2004 at 10:36 PM]
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