[greymule]

RULING: R1 is out, as the force was reinstated when he retreated past second base.

Thanks. There's no question that the retreating runner reinstates the force when he passes in reverse the base he was forced to.

I think that what was really at issue was whether such an out can nullify a run that scored before the runner reinstated the force. Apparently it can—and logically should—if the third out comes as part of a continuous play. This is why defining "play" and "continuous action" is important. If there is a break in continuous action, is the run still nullified?

Abel on 3B, Baker on 1B, 2 out. Offense down by 1 in bottom of last inning. Charles singles to tie the game. Baker goes to 2B, Charles to 1B. As F6 walks the ball to the mound, several seconds pass with no action occurring. Then Baker, taken in by the cheering and thinking the game is over, leaves 2B and runs toward 1B to congratulate Charles. F6 throws to F4, who tags 2B for the reinstated force on Baker.

No question that Baker is out. But does this "later" out at 2B nullify the run? (It certainly would not if Abel had scored the winning run. And it certainly would if Abel had obviously been retreating for some reason during the play.)

Did the break in the action make the force a new play? Bob's answer is sensible and satisfies me, but if anyone knows any different . . .

I spent a lot of time yesterday reading the J/R but haven't yet found anything specific on this matter.