[bluezebra]

Originally posted by Cubbies87
While I am basically making up my own rule rationale, here is why I would not consider a ball bouncing off the backstop and then contacting a runner a runner hit by pitch.

As Buckey12 cited from 2-28-4:
...A pitch ends when: b. comes to rest

While the ball may be moving, by contacting a solid object other than a player in the field of play, the pitch has come to rest.

To back up my claim, I will set up a scenario, no matter how ridiculous.

R1, R2, R3, one out, no count on the batter. F3 is playing way in to cover a bunt. B1 squares to bunt slightly early, and F3 charges hard. Pitch is wide and bounces off the backstop up the first baseline. F2 chases after it, but F3 picks up the ball, and flips it to F1. R1 and R2 break for 2nd and 3rd when they see the ball going to home without fielders checking their advance. F1 guns the ball to F5, but the throw is off and the ball goes out of play.

If the ball was still considered a pitch because the catcher never secured the ball, R1 would be placed on third and R2 would score because at the time of the pitch they were stationed at 1st and 2nd, and they are entitled to receive two bases from the time of the pitch.

However, by F3 throwing to F1, and then F1 throwing to F5, two plays have been made even though the ball was never batted or secured by the catcher. The 2nd play, being the throw to F5 which went out of play, would entitle both R1 and R2 two bases from the time of the throw, which would score not only R2, but also R1.

I would award according to the latter because the infield has made two plays, with the latter going out of play. By doing so, I am asserting that the pitch ended when it contacted the backstop. It is clear that the pitch was not secured by the catcher, go out of play (prior to two infield plays), become dead (prior to 2 infield plays), or be hit by the batter. That leaves only option B (coming to rest) to rule that the pitch ended (prior to 2 infield plays) when the ball contacted the backstop.

I played this scenario out in my mind, looked it over, and compared it with the FED rulebook, and I'm fairly certain it works. However, I recognize I am solving this as I would reason it to someone asking why I ruled a certain way, but my ruling could quite possibly be mistaken. If this helps, I'm glad. If not, PLEASE let me know where I went wrong.

How can F3 THROW the ball WITHOUT controlling it?

Rest means to cease moving, not changing directions.

Bob