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Originally posted by rainmaker
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Originally posted by Dan_ref
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Originally posted by JugglingReferee
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Originally posted by Dan_ref
OK....but did he did this in this sitch?
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In this case, what I feel is more important is the effect. In both cases, a player has a chance to make a play on the ball, but wes denied that opportunity.
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OK...now what if the ball hit the bench before A1 had a chance to save it? How is this different?
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Dan, I can see by the rules, that you are probably correct. But I'm having trouble swallowing it. Why isn't it unsportsmanlike for a coach to deliberately interfere with play?
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Because I don't see it as a deliberate act as originally posted. These things are almost always reflexive acts. And as you say by rule (except NBA apparently, thanks Chuck) the coach is innocent.
Is it possible that a coach might act in an overtly deliberate manner? Yeah. Would I rule differently if it were painfully obvious? Yeah. Do I ever expect to see such a thing...well...not really, but then until last summer I never expected to see a BI off a FT either.