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Old Wed Feb 04, 2004, 04:06am
rainmaker rainmaker is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by stan-MI
if the ball after the tip by B had bounced in the backcourt before it was touched by A, then B would have caused it to go into the backcourt and there would be no violation..
Stan -- the wording of the rule doesn't talk about "causing" the ball to be in the back court. It talks about who tipped it from where. Read the specific wording of the Fed 9-9-1, and 9-9-2. It couldn't be more clear.
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