Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by JugglingReferee
I think if one violates before possession is gained, then we should penalize the violation, which is the kick. (That's what we do for A right - penalize the violation ono a throw-in.)
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We do penalize the violation. A gets the ball for a throw-in.
The arrow changes if the throw-in ends or A violates, correct? But if A fouls before the throw-in ends, they keep the arrow.
Using your prinicple that isn't fair to B. It's not their fault A fouled. Why should A get to keep the arrow?
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I think what bothers me is that for A to get the ball for a throw-in doesn't seem like much of a penalty, when they already have the ball anyway, and there is the offsetting advantage for B of receiving the arrow. Why not redefine the throw-in to end when the ball is LEGALLY touched in-bounds, and then as with running the end-line, the offense wouldn't be penalized for B's violation.