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Still trying to see the light. What if, after the balk, BR had hit a home run. After the successful appeal for batting out of order, would you still put R1 on 2B, or is there something about the base on balls that's unique?
In the original case, why can't the offense claim, "Since BR did not actually advance to 1B, we'll opt not to take the result of the play but instead take the balk. So advance R1 to 2B, and we'll replace BR with the proper batter, who will assume BR's count"?
[Edited by greymule on Dec 17th, 2003 at 02:04 PM]
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greymule
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