I pullled my old book and it states that this is a continuation from previous years. As we know FED is bad about putting something in and leaving it for years with no changes.
Here is what they wrote:
Intentional fouls have remained a point of emphasis for the 2000-2001 season. The goal of reducing the number of intentional fouls has not occurred, primarily because the fouls are not being penalized as "intentional"
It seems to me they were trying to
reduce the number of intentional fouls (or hard flagrant fouls) by encouraging us as officials to call an intentional foul a foul.
They follow that with seven acts that should be deemed intentional.
All of them are obvious attempts and most would be called flagrant fouls at anytime in the game.
The one that covers what our thread about is is when the coach states "hey ref watch, we going to foul."
That's what coaches used to teach. In fact many thought if they told the ref they were going to foul that he would call it quicker so it would stop the clock faster.
It seems to me that is what FED was trying to address.
Not when the coach is simply coaching his team and with 30 seconds to go he yells "come on John foul him."
We see it all levels of ball and IMO that is good coaching.
Make them beat you at the FT line.
I looked in the next three years and it is not in the book so either we started calling it better or FED finally decided to take it out. (g)
Thanks
David
Quote:
Originally posted by Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.
to: Dave and Rich
Chuck gave us the POE from 2000-01, and it is quite clear. When Coach B tells his player to foul an opponent, and B1 then fouls A1, B1's foul is an intentional foul. Even without the 2000-01 POE, logic dictates that that B1's foul is intentional because it fits the definition of an intentional foul.
I do not have my rule books in front of me but under NFHS, NCAA, and FIBA rules, such contact by B1 has to be an intentional foul. How could B1's contact be anything other that an intentional foul. Not to charge B1 with an intentional foul would be penalizing A1 and Team A because A1 (depending upon the team foul totals) might not get his two free throws to which he is entitled and Team A would not get possession of the ball for a throw-in to which it is entitled.
Just reread my post of Nov. 10th. I actually had the same situation that we have been discussing. The fact the B1 hacked A1 on the arm is of no consequence. Coach B told him to foul an opponent and B1 immediately made illegal contact with A1 would had control of the ball.
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