[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

to: Dave and Rich

Chuck gave us the POE from 2000-01, and it is quite clear. When Coach B tells his player to foul an opponent, and B1 then fouls A1, B1's foul is an intentional foul. Even without the 2000-01 POE, logic dictates that that B1's foul is intentional because it fits the definition of an intentional foul.

I do not have my rule books in front of me but under NFHS, NCAA, and FIBA rules, such contact by B1 has to be an intentional foul. How could B1's contact be anything other that an intentional foul. Not to charge B1 with an intentional foul would be penalizing A1 and Team A because A1 (depending upon the team foul totals) might not get his two free throws to which he is entitled and Team A would not get possession of the ball for a throw-in to which it is entitled.

Just reread my post of Nov. 10th. I actually had the same situation that we have been discussing. The fact the B1 hacked A1 on the arm is of no consequence. Coach B told him to foul an opponent and B1 immediately made illegal contact with A1 would had control of the ball.