View Single Post
  #9 (permalink)  
Old Mon Oct 27, 2003, 06:42am
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2002
Posts: 15,003
Now I'm confused by Dan's post. Dan, can you please explain a little better why 1&1 is not shot if a foul occurs by the throwing team after they have touched the ball inbounds after a throw-in, but have not controlled it?
Reply With Quote