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Old Fri Oct 24, 2003, 11:57am
Jurassic Referee Jurassic Referee is offline
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally posted by Indy_Ref
[/B]
Because BOTH teams, by each one's direct actions, are trying to gain an advantage that is against the intent of the rules!

Team A: By continually breaking 4-20-1 and contributing to 10-5.

...in the case of team B's mutually exclusive act, I penalize the violation. If after team B violates and they continue to violate, I warn coach B...and subsequently T coach B if team B continues to violate.

However, in the case of A1 purposely heaving the ball off the rim with a baseball throw (or a similar act) to gain an advantage against the intent of rule 4-20-1 (to allow the free opportunity to score 1 point) and team B purposely committing FT violations to gain an advantage against the intent of rule 9-1 (to resume play after the end of the FT), I will warn, and penalize if necessary, both teams.
[/B][/QUOTE]Still can't agree with that,Indy.

Rule 4-20-1 says that a FT is the "opportunity" only. It doesn't say that the FT must be made,or there there will be a violation called against team A if they legally miss the FT. How can team A be breaking any provision at all of R4-20-1 in this case,if they legally miss the FT? Again, there is absolutely nothing in the rulebook anywhere that could possibly be used to penalize team A for legally missing a FT. And if team A does commit any type of violation on a FT, it will be penalized according to the pertinent rule, and team A will not be given a chance at a replacement FT--so that team A can never possibly continue to violate,and thus make a farce of the game.
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