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Old Thu Oct 23, 2003, 12:09pm
Dan_ref Dan_ref is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Indy_Ref
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Indy, I don't want to get into any kind of a flame war with you, or anyone else over this. However, I do have the right to post my legitimate concerns,if I have some. Having someone recommending officials to do something that CANNOT be backed up in any way by the present rules is a legitimate concern, imo.

Don't take it personal if I disagree with you. It certainly isn't meant to be.
JR,

Sorry if it sounded like I was starting to flame. It truly wasn't meant to sound like that. I meant to be sarcastic and funny...so I apologize for anyone who may me taking it any differently.

Evidently, you and I (and at least Juulie) disagree here...as did my main partner and I initially. After discussing it at length...(and I did use the same analogy on him as I posted here--to which he thought was funny), we came to the resolution I posted earlier. And, I'll stick by it. I like it...and in my opinion, not only does it make good common sense, but it also is supported by the rulebook.

I simply can't accept that the intent of A's actions aren't promoting B's violation. Team A is gaining an advantage if an official ONLY penalizes team B. Again, this is after these coaches have publicly instructed each team to act as they are.

If I'm not making myself understood yet, I may never be understood!
I understand you completely. You are saying if you devine that A1's INTENT on the FT is less than up to your standards you will penalize team A.

There is no rule to permit you to do this. As long as A1 hits the rim or puts the ball in the hole while not violatng any of the other FT provisions that are clearly spelled out he has done nothing wrong.

That's all.
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