Quote:
Originally posted by Mattinglyfan
Question: his explaination was that it appeared that since the my SS was able to get the hitter out at 1B, and it didn't appear intentional, that there was no interference.
My point was that my fielder has a right to the ball. Even if the runner tried to get out of his way, he still made contact and should be out. Any ideas?
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I agree with those who said the correct ruling, on your explanation of the scenario, would be
- R2 out for interference
- Ball immediately dead
- B-R awarded 1st base
The umpire's explanation would only make sense to me if any alledged interference was non-contact and the fielder didn't even bobble the ball. Then I'd say the runner's action had no effect on the fielder's play so no interference.
BUT, if that fielder so much as bobbled the ball while gloving it AND I judged that was caused by the runner's actions THEN I'd have interference regardless of the outcome.
Hope this helps
Cheers