[BillyMac]

This question and answer recently appeared on a local webpage:

Question: A1 has an end line spot throw in...throw in goes to A2, who in turn passes to A3 at the top of the key. Meanwhile, A1 runs the entire baseline out of bounds to receive a pass from A3 in position for a 3-point shot...what is the ruling?

Answer: There should be no delay in A1 returning immediately to the court at the completion of the throw-in. Since you know of A1's actions, hold your delayed signal and assess a violation to A1 if they are the first player to touch the ball after gaining inbounds status.

By rule, wouldn’t this be a technical foul?

A1 did not step out of bounds, they were already legally out of bounds, and then purposely delayed their return back onto the playing court.

9-3-3: A player shall not step out of bounds under the player’s own volition and then become the first player to touch the ball after returning to the playing court or to avoid a violation.

10-4-2: Purposely and/or deceitfully delay returning after legally being out of bounds.

In forty-plus years, I have never seen 10-4-2 called, but I have orally warned a few times.

The description of the question and answer completely matches the rule language of 10-4-2 “purposely …delay returning after legally being out of bounds”.

Would any Forum members use new rule 9-3-3 in this situation rather than 10-4-2?

Is the penalty too harsh (technical foul on A1, two free throws by best free throw shooter on Team B, Team B gets ball at division line opposite table) to use 10-4-2, whereas 9-3-3 is simply a violation (Team B gets ball at spot nearest the violation)?